What did Jesus mean when He told the thief, "I tell you today you will be with me in Paradise?"

There is a lot of debate in the church overall about where the 'comma' should go in Lk 24:43 and what the implications would be if such a comma was moved. Commas and punctuation in general are not found in the original Greek manuscripts and were added in later. Due to this, most every English translation will contain some punctuation errors. Hebrew and Greek don't translate 'perfectly' into english, so there will always be choices on the translators part on which nuance to pull out or which direction to go in.  Fortunately, other scriptures and context help a great deal to narrow the options down. In general we should expect that punctuation is added to increase readability and should be close to the sense of the original. However, because humans are fallible, we should not build doctrine off of the placement of a comma. Also, we have to watch out for translations that purposefully choose punctuation or alter word choice to fit their point of view, as accuracy of translation is secondary for those translators.

When it comes to Luke 24:43, however, it is possible that those too focused on comma placement and how it affects their personal theories of man's state after death but pre-resurrection are missing Jesus' real point:

 'TODAY' was a rabbinical term, referring to the coming of the Messiah. There are various rabbinical parables that show how the messiah will come "TODAY". In essence, it was used to show a sort of eternal perspective (that whatever day He comes or that we enter God's rest, it is TODAY) vs. Man's sense of time.

 "(Joshua) said to him: --"When will you come, Lord?"
 He said to him: --"Today!"...
 (Elijah) said to him: --"He promised you and your father the world to come!'
 (Joshua) said to him: --"He told me a lie! For he said he would come today but he did not come!" (Elijah) said to him: --"He told you thus: 'Today, if you will hear his voice" (Ps 57:7)" --- Babylonian Talmud, Sanhedrin 98a

 This concept of TODAY is referenced directly in Psalm 95:7-11, Heb 3:7-12; 4:1-11. "Therefore since it still remains for some to enter that rest, and since those who formerly had the good news proclaimed to them did not go in because of their disobedience, God again set a certain day, calling it “Today....." Heb 4:6-7 2)

As such, Jesus was simply telling the man that due to his faith He would enter God's rest. (II Cor 5:6-8, I Thess 4:13-18) Such as "I say to you "TODAY" you shall be with me in Paradise (for you have heard my voice)."

'TODAY' is not a specific timing element at all, but an assurance that Christ is the Messiah and that the thief will be allowed in the Kingdom.

But for a brief examination of the two most common views that depend on comma placement:

- By placing the comma right after the word today, it is claimed by some that Jesus is essentially saying, "I'm telling you today/right now that you will be with me in Paradise (someday)". While it does not contradict other scripture nor does it undermine the basic meaning of the passage, it is not supported by the scriptures and traditions that spoke to "TODAY" having a rich meaning in reference to the messiah.

- By placing the comma directly before the word today, it is claimed by many that Jesus is claiming that he and the thief will both go to be in Paradise that very day. (As in, on this day specifically we'll hang out in Paradise). This interpretation is the least likely as it seems to contradict many scriptures.   'Paradise' is in currently in Heaven (not a suburb of sheol, despite some jewish theories and apocryphal writings) as shown in II Cor 12:3-4 and Rev 2:7. It seems to be that Paradise will come to earth and be in the new Jerusalem. (Rev 22:2, 7, 14, 18). Jesus had not yet ascended to His father when he rose (though He did later) - so how could Jesus have gone up to heaven in the interim? In fact, Jesus went the other way - his spirit going to Sheol. (1 Peter 3:18-21, Acts 2:23-36). He did not ascend to His father until after he rose (John 20:17) - though it is implied He had before a week had passed (John 20:24-29). [My personal theory is that he ascended before the throne at some point on the day He rose as the true/perfect First Fruits and Atonement offering (Heb 9:16-27, Heb 12:24, 1 Cor 15:23)]. ***

And so, back to the deeper point - punctuation can at times affect the interpretation of a passage. This does not make the original texts wrong, but show how man can accidentally introduce errors and bias in their translations. In some cases, the answer can be found not by wrangling with punctuation but by asking what a word or phrase would have meant to the specific audience it was spoken to.